explanation stringlengths 12 2.97k | idx stringlengths 1 3 | note stringclasses 3
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Answer: (c and d). The active ingredient founds in Paxlovid are Nirmatrelvir and Ritonavir. Nirmatrelvir is a SARS-CoV-2 main protease (Mpro) inhibitor, and Ritonavir is an HIV-1 protease inhibitor and CYP3A inhibitor. Nirmatrelvir is available as immediate-release, film-coated tablets. Each tablet contains 150 mg Nirm... | 137 | Multiple options | c and d | {
"A": "Viramune",
"B": "Saquinavir",
"C": "Ritonavir",
"D": "Nirmatrelvir",
"E": "Remdesivir"
} | [
"C",
"D"
] | What is the active ingredient found in Paxlovid? |
Answer: (b). The SARS-CoV-2 RNA codes for a pair of protease enzymes that are essential to production of viable virions upon release. Since protease inhibitors have been highly effective for treating patients with infections of human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis C virus, that is the best choice.
Use of neurami... | 136 | None | b | {
"A": "Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors",
"B": "Protease inhibitors",
"C": "Nucleoside analogues ",
"D": "Neuraminidase inhibitors",
"E": "Calcium channel blockers"
} | [
"B"
] | Based on the genetic make-up of SARS-CoV-2, which of the following drug classes is most likely to prove effective? |
Answer: (a). The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.
1. The recommended dose of Olumian... | 135 | None | a | {
"A": "1 mg once daily",
"B": "2 mg once daily",
"C": "3 mg once daily",
"D": "4 mg once daily",
"E": "Cannot be used with OAT3 inhibitors"
} | [
"A"
] | The recommended dose of Olumiant in patients taking strong Organic Anion Transporter 3 (OAT3) inhibitors is _____________. |
Answer: b
The active ingredient found in Olumiant is Baricitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies.
The recommended dose of Olumiant is ... | 134 | None | b | {
"A": "\"I have vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause.\"",
"B": "\"I have rheumatoid arthritis.\"",
"C": "\"I have hypercalcemia.\"",
"D": "\"I have Paget's disease of bone.\"",
"E": "\"I have migraine headaches associated with menopause.\""
} | [
"B"
] | Which of the following statements would indicate that a patient understands why he is taking Olumiant? |
Answer: (a). The active ingredient found in Veklury is Remdesivir. Veklury (Remdesivir) is authorized for use under an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) only for the treatment of adult and pediatric patients hospitalized with suspected or laboratory-confirmed COVID-19, and for whom use of an intravenous (IV) agent is c... | 133 | None | a | {
"A": "IV infusion",
"B": "Subcutaneously",
"C": "Intramuscularly",
"D": "Orally",
"E": "Rectally"
} | [
"A"
] | Veklury must be administered: |
Answer: (a,b,c,e) The COVID-19 often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever. It progresses over an 11- to 14-day period. It has incubation period of 2- to 14-day. Some patients have had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progress... | 132 | Multiple options | a,b,c,e | {
"A": "COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.",
"B": "Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.",
"C": "In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.",
"D":... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"E"
] | Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? |
Answer: (a,b,c,e) The COVID-19 often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever. It progresses over an 11- to 14-day period. It has incubation period of 2- to 14-day. Some patients have had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progress... | 131 | Multiple options | a,b,c,e | {
"A": "COVID-19 infection often begins with malaise, dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and feeling of fever.",
"B": "Covid-19 infection has incubation period of 2- to 14-day.",
"C": "In contrast to the sudden onset people report with influenza, progression of symptoms with Covid-19 virus have a slower onset.",
"D":... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"E"
] | Which of the following statements is/are TRUR ABOUT Covid-19? |
Answer:(d). About 5% of patients with COVID-19 (one-fourth of those needing hospitalization) present with advanced symptoms or become critically ill as viral damage in the lungs results in acute respiratory distress syndrome. Multi-organ failure occurs later in the disease course; changes in smell and taste and nonprod... | 130 | None | d | {
"A": "Loss of or reductions in smell or taste",
"B": "Multi organ failures",
"C": "Severe seizure",
"D": "Acute respiratory distress syndrome",
"E": "Refractory, nonproductive cough"
} | [
"D"
] | The transition from mild/moderate symptoms to more severe stages of COVID-19 is marked by the onset of: |
Answer: (d). Liver toxicity with acetaminophen may occur and is a serious, dose-dependent effect. The maximum recommended dosage is 75 mg/kg/day (adults not to exceed 4 g/d), and products carry warnings about exceeding this dose.
Signs associated with acetaminophen toxicity can mimic influenza symptoms and may include... | 129 | None | d | {
"A": "15mg/kg/day",
"B": "30mg/kg/day",
"C": "45mg/kg/day",
"D": "75mg/kg/day",
"E": "100mg/kg/day"
} | [
"D"
] | Liver toxicity with acetaminophen may occur and is a serious, dose-dependent effect. The maximum recommended dosage is: |
Answer: (c) The active ingredient found in Xofluza (Baloxavir marboxil) is Baloxavir marboxil. Xofluza (Baloxavir marboxil) is a polymerase acidic (PA) endonuclease inhibitor.
Baloxavir marboxil is a prodrug that is converted by hydrolysis to baloxavir, the active form that exerts anti-influenza virus activity. Baloxa... | 128 | None | c | {
"A": "HMG-CoA inhibitor",
"B": "Neuraminidase inhibitor",
"C": "Cap-dependent endonuclease inhibitor",
"D": "DNA dependent RNA polymerase inhibitor",
"E": "PABA inhibitor"
} | [
"C"
] | The probable mechanism of action of Baloxavir Marboxil? |
Answer: (b). Prescription antiviral medications with influenza virus activity may be useful adjuncts in influenza prevention and treatment and are most effective when administered within 48 hours of symptom onset. | 127 | None | b | {
"A": "24 hours",
"B": "48 hours",
"C": "72 hours",
"D": "4 days",
"E": "12 hours"
} | [
"B"
] | Prescription antiviral medications with influenza virus activity may be useful adjuncts in influenza prevention and treatment and are most effective when administered within _______ of symptom onset. |
Answer: (c) Influenza is named according to the type, the location of initial isolation, the strain designation, and the year of isolation. For example, A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2), or H3N2, is influenza type A with origin in Texas, with strain No. 50, isolated in 2012 and of the H3N2 subtype. | 126 | None | c | {
"A": "A",
"B": "Texas",
"C": "50",
"D": "2012",
"E": "H3N2"
} | [
"C"
] | What is a strain number of influenza virus in A/Texas/50/2012 (H3N2)? |
Answer (b,c): Salicylates, like NSAIDs, work by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes; however, salicylates do so in an irreversible manner, while NSAIDs do so reversibly.
Absorption in the gut is affected by the dosage form, gastric pH, gastric emptying time, dissolution rate, ... | 125 | Multiple options | b,c | {
"A": "Provide greater pain control with equivalent doses.",
"B": "May cause GI side effects more frequently than NSAIDs.",
"C": "May inhibit prostaglandin synthesis irreversibly; whereas NSAIDs do reversibly.",
"D": "May cause more renal damage than NSAIDs.",
"E": "Risk of bleeding is more with Salicylate c... | [
"B",
"C"
] | In which aspect, Salicylate is different from NSAIDs? |
The active ingredient found in Botox is OnabotulinumtoxinA. It is an acetylcholine release inhibitor and a neuromuscular blocking agent.
Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) blocks neuromuscular transmission by binding to acceptor sites on motor or autonomic nerve terminals, entering the nerve terminals, and inhibiting the rele... | 124 | None | c | {
"A": "Serotonin",
"B": "Histamine",
"C": "Acetylcholine",
"D": "GABA",
"E": "Dopamine"
} | [
"C"
] | Botox (OnabotulinumtoxinA) inhibits the release which of the following? |
Answer: (d,e). Acetaminophen has been shown in studies to reduce pain, as well as improve photophobia and phonophobia in individuals with migraine and tension-type headache. They have not been shown to improve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, or blurry vision with migraine. | 123 | Multiple options | d,e | {
"A": "Nausea",
"B": "Vomiting",
"C": "Blurry vision",
"D": "Photophobia",
"E": "Phonophobia"
} | [
"D",
"E"
] | At 1000 mg dose, Acetaminophen is usually effective treating which of the following Migraine related symptoms?
[Select ALL THAT APPLY] |
Answer: (a,c,d)
1. Tension-type headaches often are caused by stress, depression, anxiety, emotional conflicts, or other stimuli.
2. They are sometimes called stress headaches and may result from pericranial muscle contraction.
3. Patients experience bilateral symptoms that may be over the top of the head to the nec... | 122 | Multiple options | a,c,d | {
"A": "Pain associated with this type of headache is unilateral",
"B": "Mild photophobia or phonophobia is reported with the headache",
"C": "Routine physical activity usually aggravates the headache",
"D": "Headache has fast onset of action and last for few hours.",
"E": "It is also known as stress headache... | [
"A",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the tension-type headaches? |
Answer (b): Headaches are classified as primary or secondary according to the International Classification of Headache Disorders (ICHD) 2018.
Primary headaches are not caused by underlying illness. ICHD further classifies primary headaches as tension-type headache, migraine, trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias, or other... | 121 | None | b | {
"A": "Primary-headache",
"B": "Secondary-headache",
"C": "Tertiary-headache",
"D": "Category II-headache",
"E": "Category V-headache"
} | [
"B"
] | Medication-overuse headache is generally classified as a: |
Answer: (c).
The active ingredient found in Qdolo is Tramadol hydrochloride. It is available as an oral solution. It is a schedule IV controlled substance. The simultaneous administration of Ultram (Tramadol) with Qdolo (Tramadol) is considered duplication of therapy; concurrent use should be avoided.
Qdolo is an opi... | 120 | None | c | {
"A": "Lopressor",
"B": "Humira",
"C": "Ultram",
"D": "Ritalin",
"E": "Levaquin"
} | [
"C"
] | The simultaneous administration of which of the following with Qdolo is considered as a duplication of therapy? |
Answer: (a,d,e)
The active ingredient found in Spravato is Esketamine. It is available in a nasal spray. It is a schedule III controlled substance.
Spravato is a non-competitive N-methyl D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist indicated, in conjunction with an oral antidepressant, for the treatment of:
1. Treatment-r... | 119 | Multiple options | a,d,e | {
"A": "It is indicated for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression.",
"B": "Lketamine is its active ingredient.",
"C": "It is a schedule IV controlled substance.",
"D": "It is a non-competitive N-methyl D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist.",
"E": "It is available as a nasal spray."
} | [
"A",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT Spravato? . |
Answer (c) The active ingredient found in Kesimpta is Ofatumumab. It is available in a single-dose prefilled syringe.
Kesimpta (Ofatumumab) is a CD20-directed cytolytic antibody indicated for the treatment of relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis (MS), to include clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing-remitting disea... | 118 | None | c | {
"A": "Hypertension",
"B": "Gout",
"C": "Multiple sclerosis",
"D": "Type II diabetes",
"E": "Parkinsonism"
} | [
"C"
] | Kesimpta (Ofatumumab) is indicated for the treatment of: |
Answer (b,c) | 117 | Multiple options | b,c | {
"A": "Byetta",
"B": "Adlyxin",
"C": "Victoza",
"D": "Trulicity",
"E": "Tanzeum"
} | [
"B",
"C"
] | Which of the following glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) is administered subcutaneously once daily? . |
Answer: (a,c).
The active ingredient found in Winlevi is Clascoterone. It is available as cream. Each gram of Winlevi cream contains 10 mg of Clascoterone. It is an androgen receptor inhibitor indicated for the topical treatment of acne vulgaris in patients 12 years of age and older. Erythema/reddening, pruritus, scal... | 116 | Multiple options | a,c | {
"A": "The active ingredient is Clascoterone.",
"B": "It is an estrogen receptor inhibitor.",
"C": "Indicated for the treatment of acne vulgaris.",
"D": "It should only be used in patients 12 years of age or younger.",
"E": "It is available as topical gel."
} | [
"A",
"C"
] | Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ABOUT Winlevi? . |
Answer: (a,b,c) The active ingredient found in Rybelsus is Semaglutide. It is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist indicated as:
1. an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Rybelsus should be taken:
1. Take on an empty stomach when you first w... | 115 | Multiple options | a,b,c | {
"A": "Take on an empty stomach when you first wake up.",
"B": "Take with no more than 4 ounces of plain water.",
"C": "Wait at least 30 minutes before eating, drinking, or taking other oral medications.",
"D": "It works best if you take Rybelsus 5 minutes before taking the meal.",
"E": "It should be taken o... | [
"A",
"B",
"C"
] | How one should take Rybelsus? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (b) I and II only. Ozempic (Semaglutide) is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist indicated as:
1. an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
2. to reduce the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events in adults with type 2 diabetes melli... | 114 | None | b | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | Ozempic (Semaglutide) is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist indicated as:
I. an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
II. to reduce the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus and established cardio... |
Answer: (a, d, c and e).
Epidiolex (Cannabidiol) is a prescription medicine that is used to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome or Dravet syndrome in patients 2 years of age and older.
It is not known if Epidiolex (Cannabidiol) is safe and effective in children under 2 years of age. The active ing... | 113 | Multiple options | a, d, c and e | {
"A": "It is a prescription medicine that is used to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome or Dravet syndrome in patients 2 years of age and older.",
"B": "An active ingredient found in Epidiolex is Cannabidiol.",
"C": "It is the first and Only FDA-Approved Prescription CBD.",
"D": "The recomm... | [
"A",
"D",
"C",
"E"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Epidiolex? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (d) All. Preeclampsia is a condition during pregnancy where there is a sudden rise in blood pressure and swelling, mostly in the face, hands, and feet.
Signs and symptoms associated with preeclampsia:
1. a headache that persists
2. swelling of the face or hands
3. changes in eyesight
4. sudden weight gain
... | 112 | None | d | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | What are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?
I. a persistent headache
II. swelling of the face or hands
III. shoulder pain |
Answer: (a, d and e).
A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period whereas premenstrual syndrome (PMS) headaches typically occur before a period begins.
Acute migraine headaches are normally reported when the level of estrogen in the body drops (not rises) significantly.
Around 60% (not... | 111 | Multiple options | a, d and e | {
"A": "A menstrual migraine headache may occur before, during, or after a period.",
"B": "Acute migraine headaches may occur when the level of estrogen in the body rises significantly.",
"C": "Around 10% of females who experience migraine report that menstruation is a trigger for these headaches.",
"D": "Preme... | [
"A",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT headaches during menstrual period? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (a, b, d and e).
Oscillopsia is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary. It usually occurs as a result of conditions that affect eye movement or alter how parts of the eye, inner ear, and brain stabilize images and maintain balance. The American P... | 110 | Multiple options | a, b, d and e | {
"A": "It is the sensation that the surrounding environment is constantly in motion when it is, in fact, stationary.",
"B": "It is usually a symptom of conditions that affect eye movement or the eye's ability to stabilize images, especially during movement.",
"C": "It often links to types of ataxia, which is a c... | [
"A",
"B",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Oscillopsia? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (e). Valtoco (diazepam nasal spray) is indicated for the acute treatment of intermittent, stereotypic episodes of frequent seizure activity (ie, seizure clusters, acute repetitive seizures) that are distinct from a patient’s usual seizure pattern in patients with epilepsy 6 years of age and older.
Valtoco is a... | 109 | None | e | {
"A": "Subcutaneously",
"B": "Intramuscularly",
"C": "Orally",
"D": "Rectally",
"E": "Intranasally"
} | [
"E"
] | The FDA has recently approved Valtoco (Diazepam). How is it administered to a patient? |
Answer: (b,c and d). According to the National Institute of Mental Health, about 0.6% of adults in the United States experienced anorexia between 2001 and 2003, compared to 0.3% who experienced bulimia.
There are essential differences between anorexia and bulimia, and it is possible for a person to have both at the sa... | 108 | Multiple options | b,c and d | {
"A": "lose weight rapidly",
"B": "eating in secret",
"C": "frequent overeating",
"D": "developing acid reflux",
"E": "developing anemia"
} | [
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | What is the primary sign or symptom that differentiate bulimia from anorexia? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (b). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy: Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of the disease. It typically occurs in adults between the ages of 20 and 60 years.
The disease often starts in the left ventricle, but it can eventually also affect the right ventricle.
Dilated cardiom... | 107 | None | b | {
"A": "Dilated cardiomyopathy",
"B": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy",
"C": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy",
"D": "Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | Which of the following is a genetic condition in which abnormal growth of the heart muscle fibers occurs, leading to the thickening of these fibers? |
Answer: (d). All. Pharmacists should be able to recognise red flag signs and symptoms of PND and refer these patients immediately.
Red flag signs for postnatal depression: | 106 | None | d | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Pharmacists should be able to recognise red flag signs of Postnatal depression (PND) and refer these patients immediately. Which of the following is/are Red flag signs or symptoms for postnatal depression?
I. Recent significant change in mental state or emergence of new psychiatric symptoms
II. New thoughts or acts o... |
Answer: (a,b,c,d,e). All.
Pharmacists are likely to encounter patients affected by postnatal depression, therefore the ability to identify signs of this under-recognised disorder is essential for appropriate and prompt referral for help and support.
Maternal suicide remains the leading cause of death from a direct ca... | 105 | Multiple options | a,b,c,d,e | {
"A": "About 10% of women experiencing a mental health problem during pregnancy or postpartum.",
"B": "PND can begin at any time within one year after delivery.",
"C": "Patients may experience a persistent low mood, lack of interest and enjoyment in usual activities, low self-esteem or lack of energy",
"D": "P... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about postnatal depression (PND)? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (d). All. Lynparza (Olaparib) is an inhibitor of the mammalian polyadenosine 5’-diphosphoribose polymerase (PARP) enzyme. Lynparza (Olaparib) tablets for oral administration contain 100 mg or 150 mg of Olaparib.
It is indicated for treatments of:
1. First-Line Maintenance Treatment Of BRCA-Mutated Advanced Ov... | 104 | None | d | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Lynparza (Olaparib) is indicated for treatment(s) of:
I. Ovarian Cancer
II. Metastatic Breast Cancer
III. Pancreatic cancer |
Answer: (a). Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that are usually characterized by damage to the optic nerve and gradual vision loss that starts with losing peripheral (side) vision. People who have high eye pressure are at higher risk for glaucoma.
Primary glaucomas:
When experts don’t know what causes a type of gla... | 103 | None | a | {
"A": "Neovascular",
"B": "Pigmentary",
"C": "Exfoliation",
"D": "Uveitic",
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | _______________ glaucoma happens when the eye makes extra blood vessels that cover the part of your eye where fluid would normally drain. |
Answer: (c). Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that are usually characterized by damage to the optic nerve and gradual vision loss that starts with losing peripheral (side) vision. People who have high eye pressure are at higher risk for glaucoma.
Primary glaucomas:
When experts don’t know what causes a type of gla... | 102 | None | c | {
"A": "Open-angle",
"B": "Congenital",
"C": "Pigmentary",
"D": "Angle-closure",
"E": null
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following types of glaucoma is NOT CONSIDERED a primary glaucoma? |
Answer: (d) All. Refractive errors happen when the shape of your eye keeps light from focusing correctly on your retina (a light-sensitive layer of tissue at the back of your eye).
Each type of refractive error is different, but they all make it hard to see clearly.
Nearsightedness (myopia):
Nearsightedness makes fa... | 101 | None | d | {
"A": "a only",
"B": "a and b only",
"C": "a, b and c only",
"D": "a, b, c and d",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Which of the following is/are Type(s) of Refractive Errors? [Select All That Apply] |
Answer: (b) Ubrelvy (Ubrogepant) is indicated for the acute treatment of migraine with or without aura in adults. It is the first and only orally-administered calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor antagonist (gepant) for the treatment of migraine attacks once they start.
Ubrelvy (Ubrogepant) provided lasting... | 100 | None | b | {
"A": "Hypertension",
"B": "Migraine",
"C": "Diabetes mellitus",
"D": "Parkinsonism",
"E": "Generalized anxiety"
} | [
"B"
] | Ubrelvy (Ubrogepant) is indicated for the treatment of: |
Answer: (d) Dayvigo (Lemborexant) was approved for the treatment of insomnia characterized by difficulties with sleep onset and/or sleep maintenance in adults1. In the United States, Dayvigo (Lemborexant) will be commercially available in 5 mg and 10 mg tablets following scheduling by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administ... | 99 | None | d | {
"A": "benzodiazepine receptor agonist",
"B": "benzodiazepine receptor antagonist",
"C": "Melatonin receptor agonist",
"D": "Orexin receptor antagonist",
"E": "Histamine H2 receptor antagonist"
} | [
"D"
] | Dayvigo (Lemborexant), a recently approved FDA drug, is indicated for the treatment of insomnia. The probable mechanism of action of Dayvigo (Lemborexant) is: |
Answer: (b) The active ingredient found in Conjupri is Levoamlodipine. It is the pharmacologically active enantiomer in Amlodipine (a racemic mixture of (R)- and (S)-Amlodipine), for the treatment of hypertension. Amlodipine is a third-generation calcium channel blocker first developed and marketed by Pfizer as Norvasc... | 98 | None | b | {
"A": "Cyclosporine",
"B": "Amlodipine",
"C": "Pregabalin",
"D": "Carbamazepine",
"E": "Cisplatin"
} | [
"B"
] | Conjupri, a recently approved FDA drug, is the pharmacologically active enantiomer of: |
Answer: (c) Rinvoq (Upadacitinib) is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adults with moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis who have had an inadequate response or intolerance to methotrexate.
Use of Rinvoq (Upadacitinib) in combination with other JAK inhibitors, biologic DMARDs, o... | 97 | None | c | {
"A": "Rheumatrex",
"B": "Prograf",
"C": "Rinvoq",
"D": "Xcopri",
"E": "Carboplatin"
} | [
"C"
] | Avoid initiation or interrupt __________if absolute lymphocyte count is less than 500 cells/mm3, absolute neutrophil count is less than 1000 cells/mm3, or hemoglobin level is less than 8 g/dL. |
Answer: (d) Use of Xeljanz/Xeljanz XR in combination with biologic DMARDs or with potent immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and cyclosporine is not recommended.
The active ingredient found in Xeljanz is Tofacitinib. It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor. It is indicated for treatments of:
1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
... | 96 | None | d | {
"A": "It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor.",
"B": "It is indicated for the treatment of ulcerative colitis.",
"C": "The active ingredient found in Xeljanz is Tofacitinib.",
"D": "It should always prescribe with Cyclosporine to increase its efficiency.",
"E": "If a serious infection develops, interrupt Xelj... | [
"D"
] | Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Xeljanz? |
Answer: (c) different indication.
Tolsura (itraconazole capsules) and Sporanox (itraconazole) are azole antifungals used to treat different types of infections. Tolsura is used to treat blastomycosis, pulmonary and extrapulmonary; histoplasmosis, including chronic cavitary pulmonary disease and disseminated, non-menin... | 95 | None | c | {
"A": "Different dosing frequency",
"B": "Less side effects",
"C": "Different indication",
"D": "Different dosage form",
"E": "No difference"
} | [
"C"
] | In which way, Tolsura (Itraconazole) is different from Sporanox (Itraconazole)? |
Answer (a). It must be very frustrating to have to try something new. Answer “b” does not acknowledge the patient’s feelings; answer “c” moves to finding a solution without acknowledging the patient’s feelings and “d” is placating. | 94 | None | a | {
"A": "It must be very frustrating to have to try something new.",
"B": "It’s too bad we can’t take a prescription back for a refund.",
"C": "I can provide you with a smaller quantity this time.",
"D": "Your doctor is trying to find the best medication for you.",
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | A 35-year-old man who is a regular patient of yours comes to your pharmacy counter with a new prescription. His shoulders appear tense and his eyebrows are knit tightly.
He says to you, “I can’t believe I have to fill another prescription today. I was just in three weeks ago and spent $75 dollars on some fancy new med... |
Answer: (a, b, c and d). Naloxone was patented in 1961, was first approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1971, and is currently on the World Health Organization’s List of Essential Medicines.
Naloxone hydrochloride is a pure opioid antagonist that competitively binds to μ-opioid receptors only when opio... | 93 | Multiple options | a, b, c and d | {
"A": "Naloxone hydrochloride is a pure opioid antagonist that competitively binds to μ-opioid receptors only when opioids are present.",
"B": "No tolerance or dependence is associated with naloxone use",
"C": "When comparing the μ-opioid receptor affinity of naloxone with that of most opioids, including heroin,... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Naloxone? [Select All That Apply]. |
Answer(b): The 2016 CDC guideline for prescribing opioids suggests to reassess the evidence of “individual benefit and risk” when increasing daily dose to above 50 morphine milligrams equivalent per day, and avoidance of doses greater than 90 MME per day. | 92 | None | b | {
"A": "30",
"B": "50",
"C": "90",
"D": "120",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | 93. The 2016 CDC guideline for prescribing opioids suggests to reassess the evidence of “individual benefit and risk” when increasing daily dose to above ____ morphine milligrams equivalent per day. |
Answer (a, b, c and d). The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), a component of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), administers Medicare, Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) and parts of the Affordable Care Act (ACA.
... | 91 | Multiple options | a, b, c and d | {
"A": "Medicare",
"B": "Medicaid",
"C": "Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)",
"D": "Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)",
"E": null
} | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following are administered by Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)? [
Select ALL That Apply
] |
Answer (a, b, c and d). Essential fatty acids, or EFAs, are fatty acids that humans and other animals must ingest because the body requires them for good health but cannot synthesize them.
Only two fatty acids are known to be essential for humans: alpha-linolenic acid (an omega-3 fatty acid) and linoleic acid (an omeg... | 90 | Multiple options | a, b, c and d | {
"A": "Linoleic and alpha-linolenic are essential fatty acids.",
"B": "Arachidonic acid is classified as ‘conditionally essential’ fatty acid.",
"C": "Ideally, in the diet, the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids should be between 1:1 and 4:1.",
"D": "Excessive intake of omega-6 fatty acids can cause the d... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE ABOUT Essential Fatty Acids? [
Select ALL That Apply
] |
Answer: Tyrosine hydroxylase. | 89 | Figure | c | {
"A": "Dopa decarboxylase",
"B": "hydroxylase",
"C": "Tyrosine hydroxylase",
"D": "n-Methyl transferase",
"E": null
} | [
"C"
] | Identify the reacting enzyme in the following figure: |
Answer(a):
If the patient is suffering from metabolic acidosis (low pH with low HCO
), the next step is to calculate the anion gap because the anion gap helps determining the etiology of the metabolic acidosis.
The anion gap is the difference between the measured serum cations (positively charged particles) and the m... | 88 | None | a | {
"A": " Anion-gap metabolic acidosis",
"B": " Non-Anion-gap metabolic acidosis",
"C": " Cation gap metabolic acidosis",
"D": " Non-Cation-gap metabolic acidosis",
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | The laboratory finding reveals that 57 year-old patient is suffering from metabolic acidosis. What kind of metabolic acidosis is he suffering from?
ABG:
7.21/32/98
100% O
2
Sat on Room Air
Electrolytes:
Na 145 mEq/L, K 4.5 mEq/L, Cl 105 mEq/L, HCO
3
25 mEq/L |
Answer: I only is true, [Washington State Pharmacy Law July 2016 News Letter].
All 50 states, including Washington State, have rules in place allowing electronic prescriptions for controlled substances (EPCS), including Schedule II medications.
Pharmacies and practitioners wishing to use EPCS must first select softwa... | 87 | None | a | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | According to Washington State Pharmacy Law, which of the following information about Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances (EPCS) is/are TRUE?
I. Electronic signatures are required on all electronically communicated prescriptions.
II. The prescription that is generated electronically and transmitted via ... |
Answer: Purple Drank. NABP reports a recent rise in forged prescriptions for promethazine with codeine. Promethazine with codeine, a Schedule V CS, has been used for years as a cough medication. Abusers commonly refer to it as “purple drank.” “Purple drank” is a combination of promethazine with codeine mixed with a car... | 86 | None | b | {
"A": "Elixir of Heaven",
"B": "Purple Drank",
"C": "Orange Cocktail",
"D": "Levoni’s Drink",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | NABP reports a recent rise in forged prescriptions for Promethazine with Codeine. Promethazine with codeine, a Schedule V CS, has been used for years as a cough medication. Abusers commonly refer to it as: |
Answer: (I and II only). PMP InterConnect is a highly secure communications exchange platform that facilitates the transmission of PMP data across state lines to authorized requestors, while ensuring that each state’s data-access rules are enforced. It is comprehensive and thorough tool for prescribers and dispensers t... | 85 | None | c | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about PMP InterConnect?
I. InterConnect is comprehensive and thorough tool for prescribers and dispensers to use in identifying potential opioid abuse.
II. InterConnect is a highly secure communications exchange platform that facilitates the transmission of PMP data acro... |
Answer: (a,b,c,d and e). Tall man (uppercase) letters are used within a drug name to highlight its primary dissimilarities and help to differentiate look-alike names. Several studies have shown that highlighting sections of words using tall man lettering can make similar drug names easier to distinguish, and fewer erro... | 84 | Multiple options | a,b,c,d and e | {
"A": "Several studies have shown that highlighting sections of words using tall man lettering can make similar drug names easier to distinguish.",
"B": "The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), the FDA, The Joint Commission, and other safety-conscious organizations such as the National Association of B... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT Tall Man Letters? (Select All that apply). |
Answer: (e). Sodium-glucose co-transporter2 (SGLT2), expressed in the proximal renal tubules, is responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of filtered glucose from the tubular lumen. Canagliflozin is an inhibitor of SGLT2. By inhibiting SGLT2, Canagliflozin reduces reabsorption of filtered glucose and lowers the... | 83 | None | e | {
"A": "Increase insulin sensitivity towards blood glucose.",
"B": "Stimulates insulin release from functioning beta cells of pancreas.",
"C": "Delayed the absorption of glucose from gut to blood.",
"D": "Increase gluconeogenesis in the liver.",
"E": "Increase excretion of glucose through kidney."
} | [
"E"
] | Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of action of Invokana (Canagliflozin)? |
Answer: (a and b). Co-administration of Canagliflozin with rifampin, a nonselective inducer of several UGT enzymes, including UGT1A9, UGT2B4, decreased Canagliflozin area under the curve (AUC) by 51%.This decrease in exposure to Canagliflozin may decrease efficacy. If an inducer of these UGTs (e.g., rifampin, phenytoin... | 82 | Multiple options | a and b | {
"A": "Digoxin",
"B": "Rifampin",
"C": "Ketoconazole",
"D": "Trazodone",
"E": "Tramadol"
} | [
"A",
"B"
] | Which of the following drugs interacts with Invokana (Canagliflozin)? (Select All that apply) |
Answer: (a,b,c, and d). Invokana (Canagliflozin) is a sodium-glucose co-transporter2 (SGLT2) inhibitor indicated as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type2 diabetes mellitus. The recommended starting dose is 100mg once daily, taken before the first meal of the day. Dose can be i... | 81 | Multiple options | a,b,c, and d | {
"A": "The 300-mg dose of Invokana is proven to show greater A1C reductions than Januvia.",
"B": "It is a once-daily pill that works around the clock.",
"C": "It is not for weight loss, but may help a patient to lose weight—on average 3%.",
"D": "In most clinical trials, the majority of people taking Invokana ... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following information is TRUE about Invokana (Canagliflozin)? (Select All that apply) |
Answer: (c) Before the seriousness of H. pylori infections was fully appreciated and when it was still believed that H. pylori eradication therapy could routinely cure more than 90% of patients, confirmation of cure testing was not routinely recommended. Although confirmation for cure testing is currently considered th... | 80 | None | c | {
"A": "7 days",
"B": "72 hours",
"C": "4 weeks",
"D": "6 months",
"E": "a month"
} | [
"C"
] | After completing the therapy, H. pylori follow-up status testing shall be done within what time frame to ensure H. Pylori has been completely eradicated? |
Answer: (a,c). The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) is the standard method of determining whether a person is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Reliable administration and reading of the TST requires standardization of procedures, training, supervision, and practice.
The TST is performed by injecting 0.1 ml ... | 79 | Multiple options | a,c | {
"A": "Infection with non-tuberculosis mycobacteria",
"B": "Cutaneous anergy",
"C": "Previous BCG vaccination",
"D": "Very old TB infection",
"E": "Recent live-virus vaccination"
} | [
"A",
"C"
] | Which of the following is/are false positive tuberculin skin test reactions? (Select All that apply) |
Answer :(d). Thiazide diuretics may increase the reabsorption of uric acid from renal tubules and may cause hyperuricemia. It should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from gout. | 78 | None | d | {
"A": "Hyperlipidemia",
"B": "Heart failure",
"C": "COPD",
"D": "Gout",
"E": "Peripheral artery disease"
} | [
"D"
] | Thiazide diuretics should NOT be used as a first line treatment for hypertension in patient suffering from: |
Answer: Capitation payments are used by managed care organizations to control health care costs. Capitation payments control use of health care resources by putting the physician at financial risk for services provided to patients. At the same time, in order to ensure that patients do not receive suboptimal care throug... | 77 | None | c | {
"A": "Risk free income for healthcare service providers.",
"B": "Healthcare provider may get more incentive to provide an extended treatment to a patient.",
"C": "A fixed amount of money per patient per unit of time paid in advance to the physician for the delivery of health care services.",
"D": "A patient g... | [
"C"
] | Which of the following best describes the Capitation System? |
Answer (c, d and e). "Anaerobic"means without oxygen, and respiration refers to the processes in a cell that convert biochemical energy, such as that found in glucose, into usable energy in the form of ATP. Waste products like carbon dioxide are also produced during this process.
The fermentation process in anaerobic ... | 76 | Multiple options | c, d and e | {
"A": "Waste products are carbon dioxide and water.",
"B": "It may produce between 36 and 38 ATP molecules.",
"C": "In animals, including humans, the anaerobic cycle produces lactic acid, which causes muscle cramps.",
"D": "The fermentation process in anaerobic respiration is roughly 5 percent as effective as ... | [
"C",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following information is TRUE ABOUT anaerobic respiration? (Select All that apply) |
Answer: (a) Below is the list of drugs that inhibit specifically CYP 3A4:
1. Amiodarone
2. Anastrozole
3. Azithromycin
4. Cannabinoids
5. Cimetidine
6. Clarithromycin
7. Clotrimazole
8. Cyclosporine
9. Danazol
10. Delavirdine
11. Dexamethasone
12. Diethyldithiocarbamate
13. Diltiazem
14. Dirithromycin
15... | 75 | None | a | {
"A": "Omeprazole",
"B": "Lansoprazole",
"C": "Pantoprazole",
"D": "Rabeprazole",
"E": "Esomeprazole"
} | [
"A"
] | Which of the following inhibits CYP 3A4? (Select All that apply) |
Answer: (c). Slow channel blockers inhibit the slow inward calcium current, which may prolong conduction and refractoriness in the AV node. | 74 | None | c | {
"A": "Renin",
"B": "Kinin",
"C": "Calcium",
"D": "Sodium",
"E": "Bradykinin"
} | [
"C"
] | Slow channel blocking drugs will reduce the movement of which substance into smooth muscle cells? (Select All that apply) |
Answer: (e). An ovulation home test is used by women to help determine the time in the menstrual cycle when getting pregnant is most likely. The test detects a rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) in the urine. A rise in this hormone signals the ovary to release the egg. | 73 | None | e | {
"A": "Prolactin",
"B": "Oestrogen",
"C": "Oxytocin",
"D": "Progesterone",
"E": "Luteinizing hormone"
} | [
"E"
] | Home ovulation tests usually detect a preovulatory surge in which of the following in the urine? |
Answer: (a,b,c,d). Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are drug-induced movement disorders that include acute and tardive symptoms. These symptoms include dystonia (continuous spasms and muscle contractions), akathisia (motor restlessness), Parkinsonism (characteristic symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor), an... | 72 | Multiple options | a,b,c,d | {
"A": "SAS",
"B": "BARS",
"C": "AIMS",
"D": "ESRS",
"E": "PDS"
} | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following rating scales is commonly used to evaluate the severity of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)? (Select ALL that apply) |
Answer: (d), Type 4 hypersensitivity is often called delayed type. Delayed hypersensitivity does not start to be noticeable until several hours to a full day after exposure to the antigen. It may last for over a week.
Poison ivy rash is caused by an allergic reaction to an oily resin called urushiol (u-ROO-she-ol). Th... | 71 | None | d | {
"A": "Type I Hypersensitivity",
"B": "Type II Hypersensitivity",
"C": "Type III Hypersensitivity",
"D": "Type IV Hypersensitivity",
"E": "Type V Hypersensitivity"
} | [
"D"
] | Poison Ivy rash is an example of: |
Answer: (b,c,e). Zurampic (Lesinurad) is a URAT1 inhibitor. It is available as blue film-coated tablets for oral administration containing 200 mg Lesinurad. It should be used in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. Lesinurad reduces serum uric acid levels by inhibiting the function of transporter proteins inv... | 70 | Multiple options | b,c,e | {
"A": "Acute liver failure has reported with Zurampic.",
"B": "Zurampic should be used in combination with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.",
"C": "An active ingredient found in Zurampic is Lesinurad.",
"D": "Zurampic is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.",
"E": "Zurampic is indicated for the treatment of hyperurice... | [
"B",
"C",
"E"
] | Which of the following information about Zurampic is/are TRUE? (Select All that apply). |
Answer: (a,b,d,e). Name Dose Timing Food
Pitavastatin Any time of the day With or without food
Simvastatin Evening N/A
Atorvastatin Any time of the day With or without food
Fluvastatin Evening With or without food
Pravastatin Any time of the day With or without food
Lovastatin Evening With food
Rosuvastatin Any time of... | 69 | Multiple options | a,b,d,e | {
"A": "Atorvastatin",
"B": "Pravastatin",
"C": "Simvastatin",
"D": "Pitavastatin",
"E": "Rosuvastatin"
} | [
"A",
"B",
"D",
"E"
] | Which of the following HMG-CoA inhibitors can be taken during any time of the day with or without food? (Select
All
that apply) |
Answer: (a,b,c,d). TPN solutions are made according to a variety of formulations and compounding protocols. Thus, there are possibilities of calcium phosphate precipitates and many other chemical incompatibilities. Precipitates could develop because of a number of factors such as: the concentration, pH, and phosphate c... | 68 | Multiple options | a,b,c,d | {
"A": "A lipid emulsion in a three-in-one admixture obscures the presence of calcium phosphate precipitates.",
"B": "The solubility of the added calcium should be calculated from the volume at the time the calcium is added and should NOT be based upon the final volume.",
"C": "If the amount of calcium or phospha... | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about preparing TPN formulation? (Select
All
that apply). |
Answer: (a,b). Dose adjustments may be necessary in patients with concomitant use of:
Strong CYP1A2 inhibitors (e.g., fluvoxamine, ciprofloxacin, or enoxacin);
Moderate or weak CYP1A2 inhibitors (e.g., oral contraceptives, or caffeine);
CYP2D6 or CYP3A4 inhibitors (e.g., cimetidine, escitalopram, erythromycin, parox... | 67 | Multiple options | a,b | {
"A": "Fluvoxamine",
"B": "Ciprofloxacin",
"C": "Caffeine",
"D": "Fluoxetine",
"E": "Cimetidine"
} | [
"A",
"B"
] | Which of the following is strong CYP1A2 inhibitor? (Select
All
that apply). |
Answer: 7 alphanumeric characters. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) announced a final rule that will facilitate the United States’ ongoing transition to an electronic health care environment through adoption of new healthcare code sets for use in electronic health care transactions. This rule adop... | 66 | None | a | {
"A": "7 alphanumeric characters",
"B": "3 alphanumeric characters",
"C": "13 alphanumeric characters",
"D": "10 alphanumeric characters",
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | With the ICD-10-PCS, the length of inpatient procedure codes will increase to: |
Answer: Herpes zoster.
The following vaccines are required to be stored in refrigerator (2 to 8 degree C):
1. HepA (Hepatitis A)
2. HepB (Hepatitis B)
3. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b)
4. HPV (Human papilloma virus)
5. Influenza
6. Meningococcal-combinations
7. Pneumococcal
8. Rotavirus
9. Any diphtheria... | 65 | None | d | {
"A": "Hepatitis A",
"B": "Human papilloma virus",
"C": "Influenza",
"D": "Herpes Zoster",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Which of the following vaccines is required to be stored in a freezer? |
Answer: (d) II and III are true. Durlaza is an aspirin formulation for secondary prevention in high-risk CVD patients. The aspirin delivery technology in Durlaza extends the release of aspirin in a manner designed to provide a stable antiplatelet effect over the course of the day.
Low-dose aspirin has been proven to r... | 64 | None | d | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"D"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Durlaza?
I. Clopidogrel is an active ingredient.
II. Indicated for the secondary prevention of stroke and acute cardiac events, including myocardial infarction (heart attack).
III. Available as 24-hour, extended release capsules formulation containing 162.5mg acti... |
Answer: (c). The U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved Rolapitant (Varubi) to prevent delayed phase chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (emesis). Rolapitant (Varubi) is approved in adults in combination with other drugs (antiemetic agents) that prevent nausea and vomiting associated with initial and repeat co... | 63 | None | c | {
"A": "Hypertension",
"B": "Diabetes",
"C": "Nausea and vomiting",
"D": "Schizophrenia",
"E": "Rheumatoid arthritis"
} | [
"C"
] | Rolapitant is indicated for the treatment of: |
Answer: I and II only. Homocysteine is an amino acid. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. It is not possible to get homocysteine from the diet. It must be made from methionine, another amino acid that is found in meat, fish, and dairy products. Vitamins B6 (pyridoxine), B12 and folic acid are needed to mak... | 62 | None | c | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Homocysteine?
I. It is not possible to get homocysteine from the diet.
II. Homocysteine can be recycled back into methionine using vitamin B12-related enzymes.
III. Elevated homocysteine levels have been associated with severe bleeding. |
Answer: (c). The active ingredient found in Onfi is Clobazam. It is classified as schedule IV controlled substance. Each Onfi (Clobazam) tablet contains 10 mg or 20 mg of clobazam. It is also available for oral administration as an off-white suspension containing clobazam at a concentration of 2.5 mg/mL.
Onfi (Clobaza... | 61 | None | c | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"C"
] | Onfi is available in which of the following dosage forms?
I. Tablet
II. Oral Suspension
III. Capsule |
Answer: HSDD. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has recently approved Addyi (Flibanserin) to treat acquired, generalized hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD) in premenopausal women. Prior to Addyi’s approval, there were no FDA-approved treatments for sexual desire disorders in men or women.
HSDD is characteriz... | 60 | None | c | {
"A": "PTSD",
"B": "STD",
"C": "HSDD",
"D": "PTD",
"E": null
} | [
"C"
] | FDA has recently approved Addyi (Flibanserin). It is indicated for the treatment of: |
Answer: (b) I and II only. Levetiracetam (Spritam) is indicated for the treatment of partial onset seizures, myoclonic seizures and primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures in adults and children with epilepsy.
Spritam utilizes Aprecia's proprietary ZipDose Technology platform, a groundbreaking advance that uses thre... | 59 | None | b | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"B"
] | Which of the following information about Spritam is/are TRUE?
I. The active ingredient is Levetiracetam (Spritam).
II. It is the first FDA approved drug that uses ZipDose technology.
III. It is indicated for the treatment of depression. |
Answer: High risk for misuse, [https://www.nabp.net].
NARXCHECK is an automatic prescription drug abuse assessment and management tool for health care providers. Once integrated into the facility's system, NARxCHECK automatically queries the state PMP database to generate a report that includes a score for three diffe... | 58 | None | d | {
"A": "Very low risk for misuse",
"B": "low risk for misuse",
"C": "moderate risk for misuse",
"D": "High risk for misuse",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Using the NARxCHECK, a pharmacist is receiving a scaled score of 650 for a particular patient. Which of the following statements based on this scaled score is TRUE? |
Answer: Green. As used in this section, "cryogenic vessel"means an insulated metal container in the form of a cylinder or other design used to hold gases that have been liquefied by extreme reductions in temperature.
(C). Each cryogenic vessel subject to this section shall meet the following requirements:
(1). The ve... | 57 | None | b | {
"A": "Yellow",
"B": "Green",
"C": "Gray",
"D": "Brown",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | The cryogenic vessel shall be properly labeled and color coded according to the medical gas contained in the vessel. Which of the following color-code is used for medical oxygen? |
Answer: I and II are true. Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is a synthetic steroid with antiprogestational effects.
Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is indicated for the medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy through 49 days' pregnancy. For purposes of this treatment, pregnancy is dated from the first day of the last menstrual p... | 56 | None | b | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "I and II only",
"C": "II and III only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"B"
] | Which of the following information is/are TRUE about Mifepristone?
I. It is commonly known as RU-486.
II. It is indicated for the medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy through 49 days' pregnancy.
III. The recommended dose is one (200 mg Mifepristone) as a single oral dose. |
Answer: True. The terms "prescription" and "drug order" do not include an order for medication requiring a prescription to be dispensed, which is provided for the immediate administration to the ultimate user or recipient. | 55 | None | a | {
"A": "True",
"B": "False",
"C": null,
"D": null,
"E": null
} | [
"A"
] | The terms "prescription"and "drug order"do not include an order for medication requiring a prescription to be dispensed, which is provided for the immediate administration to the ultimate user or recipient.
True or False |
Answer: (c) All. Diabetes Risk Factors:
1. Physical inactivity.
2. First-degree relative with diabetes.
3. Women who delivered a baby >9 lb or were diagnosed with GDM.
4. High-risk race/ethnicity.
5. A1C ≥5.7%, Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT), or Impaired Fasting Glucose (IFG) on previous testing.
6. Hypertensio... | 54 | None | c | {
"A": "I, III, IV and V only",
"B": "II only",
"C": "All",
"D": "I, III and IV only",
"E": "V only"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following is/are considered Diabetes Risk Factor(s)?
I. Physical inactivity.
II. Women who delivered a baby greater than 9 lb.
III. First-degree relative with diabetes.
IV. High-risk race/ethnicity
V. Hypertension ≥ 140/90 mm Hg |
Answer: (c) 240 mg/dl. Below is the chart that describes the correlation between A1C% and blood glucose concentration in mg/dl. | 53 | None | c | {
"A": "126 mg/dl",
"B": "183 mg/dl",
"C": "240 mg/dl",
"D": "269 mg/dl",
"E": "298 mg/dl"
} | [
"C"
] | According to ADA 2015 guidelines, the value of A1C% 10 reflects the mean plasma glucose level: |
Answer: (b) Ultraviolet light can cause oxidation, hydrolysis and loss of potency to sensitive meds in solution. This loss can be greatly minimised by protecting from light. Amber glass protection is expensive, foil wrapping is cumbersome and time consuming. Amber Bags offer a fast, cost effective solution. They effect... | 52 | None | b | {
"A": "48.5%",
"B": "96.7%",
"C": "95.0%",
"D": "97.3%",
"E": null
} | [
"B"
] | For I.V light sensitive drugs, Amber Bags offer a fast, cost effective solution. They effectively filter out ___% of the rays in the ultraviolet spectrum, providing the required safety. |
Answer: (c) Interferons are proteins produced by tumor cells or host cells that are infected with viruses, bacteria and other unknown nucleic acids. Interferons also activate other cells that serve as part of the immune system and destroy invading pathogens.
Interferons are classed as: alpha (from white cells), beta (... | 51 | None | c | {
"A": "Alpha-interferon",
"B": "Beta-interferon",
"C": "Gamma-interferon",
"D": "Delta-interferon",
"E": "Sigma-interferon"
} | [
"C"
] | Interferons are proteins produced by tumor cells or host cells that are infected with viruses, bacteria and other unknown nucleic acids. Interferons that are obtained from lymphocytes are generally classified as: |
Answer: (c) The Z-drugs, which include Eszopiclone (Lunesta), Zolpidem (Ambien), and Zaleplon (Sonata), are benzodiazepine receptor agonists. That means they work in a similar way to the benzodiazepine drugs inside the brain. They are GABA agonists meaning they somewhat mimic the action of gamma-Aminobutyric acid, the ... | 50 | None | c | {
"A": "Humira",
"B": "Zyprexa",
"C": "Ambien",
"D": "Axid",
"E": "Unisom"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following is commonly known as “Z-Drug”? |
Answer: (e) Esomeprazole (Nexium). Esomeprazole (Nexium) is the S-Isomer of Omeprazole (Prilosec). It is classified as a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI). It is indicated for the treatment of duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer, Zollinger Ellison Syndrome and GERD. The OTC version of Esomeprazole (Nexium) 24 HR is also commonly k... | 49 | None | e | {
"A": "Prilosec",
"B": "Tagamet",
"C": "Protonix",
"D": "Axid",
"E": "Nexium"
} | [
"E"
] | Which of the following is commonly known as “Purple Pill”? |
Answer: (c) 1:750. Benzalkonium chloride is indicated for prophylaxis and treatment of skin infections. It is antimicrobial against a wide variety of bacteria, fungi and protozoa. A 1:750 concentration of benzalkonium chloride is used for preoperative skin preparation, treatment of minor wounds, and lacerations, as a s... | 48 | None | c | {
"A": "1:1",
"B": "1:10",
"C": "1:750",
"D": "10:100",
"E": "1:250"
} | [
"C"
] | In what concentration is Benzalkonium chloride normally used for preoperative skin preparation and treatment of minor wounds? |
Answer: (d) II and III only. All Coricidin HBP (High Blood Pressure) products are free of decongestants and therefore they can safely be used in patients suffering from high blood pressure. The active ingredients found in Coricidin HBP Night are 500mg Acetaminophen, 10mg Dextromethorphan Hydrobromide and 2mg Chlorpheni... | 47 | None | d | {
"A": "I only",
"B": "III only",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"D"
] | Coricidin HBP Night is contraindicated to use in patients suffering from:
I. Hypertension
II. Glaucoma
III. BPH |
Answer: (c) Beta-Sitosterol. Beta-sitosterol is a substance found in plants. Chemists call it a “plant sterol ester.” It is found in fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds. It is used to make medicine.
Beta-sitosterol is used for heart disease and high cholesterol. It is also used for boosting the immune system and for p... | 46 | None | c | {
"A": "Lycopene.",
"B": "Horse chestnut seed.",
"C": "Beta-sitosterol.",
"D": "Hyperforin",
"E": "Korean Ginseng"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following supports the good prostate health primarily by maintaining healthy male hormone balance? |
Answer: (c) is NOT TRUE. Folic acid is a water-soluble vitamin that has antidepressant, antiproliferative, anti-teratogenic, gingival and anti-inflammatory effects. It is indicated for prevention of neural tube defects in pregnancy. It is also indicated for the treatment of megaloblastic anemia.
It shall not be used i... | 45 | None | c | {
"A": "It is indicated for prevention of neural tube defects in pregnancy.",
"B": "It is indicated for the treatment of megaloblastic anemia.",
"C": "The recommended daily allowance is 400 mg per day.",
"D": "It is a water-soluble vitamin that has antidepressant, antiproliferative, anti-teratogenic, gingival a... | [
"C"
] | Which of the following information about Folic acid is NOT TRUE? |
Answer:(d). The active ingredient found in Bydureon is Exenatide indicated for the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus. It is an incretin mimetic agent. Incretins, such as glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), enhance glucose-dependent insulin secretion and exhibit other antihyperglycemic actions following their release ... | 44 | None | d | {
"A": "Fill as it is. ",
"B": "Question the physician about the indication of the drug. ",
"C": "Question the physician about the refill quantity of the drug. ",
"D": "Question the physician about the dosage frequency of the drug. ",
"E": "Question the physician about the dosage strength of the drug."
} | [
"D"
] | A pharmacist receives a new prescription. The prescription reads:
Bydureon 2mg SC every day for type II diabetes x 30 days.
Refill: 5 times
Which of the following is the most appropriate action by a pharmacist? |
Answer:(b), Loratadine. Normally, the active ingredient found in Tavist is Clemastine. It is indicated for the treatment of seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis; and chronic idiopathic urticaria. The recommended dose is 1.34 mg orally twice a day. Dosage may be increased as required, but not to exceed 2.68 mg orall... | 43 | None | b | {
"A": "I only ",
"B": "III only ",
"C": "I and II only",
"D": "II and III only",
"E": "All"
} | [
"B"
] | The active ingredient found in Tavist ND is/are:
I. Clemastine
II. Pseudoephedrine
III. Loratadine |
Answer: (d). Ledipasvir and Sofosbuvir (Harvoni) . Ledipasvir and Sofosbuvir (Harvoni) is the first combination pill approved to treat chronic HCV genotype 1 infection. It is also the first approved regimen that does not require administration with interferon or ribavirin, two FDA-approved drugs also used to treat HCV ... | 42 | None | d | {
"A": "Vitekta ",
"B": "Tybost ",
"C": "Movantik ",
"D": "Harvoni ",
"E": "Contrave"
} | [
"D"
] | Which of the following is the first combination pill approved to treat chronic HCV genotype 1 infection? |
Answer: (b). Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) is an antispasmodic, anticholinergic agent. Each Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) Extended Release Tablet contains 5 mg, 10 mg, or 15 mg of Oxybutynin chloride USP, formulated as a once-a-day controlled-release tablet for oral administration. Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) uses osmotic pressure ... | 41 | None | b | {
"A": "I only ",
"B": "III only ",
"C": "I and II only ",
"D": "II and III only ",
"E": "All"
} | [
"B"
] | Which of the following Oxybutynin formulations is indicated for the symptoms of detrusor overactivity associated with a condition called Spina bifida?
I. Ditropan
II. Oxytrol
III. Ditropan XL |
Answer: d. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is a member of a class of antiarrhythmic drugs with predominantly Class III (Vaughan Williams' classification) effects, available for oral administration as pink, scored tablets containing 200 mg of Amiodarone hydrochloride.
Amiodarone (Cordarone) contains 37.3% iodine by weight. The... | 40 | None | d | {
"A": "Hypertension ",
"B": "Arrhythmia",
"C": "Depression",
"D": "Hyperthyroidism",
"E": "Seizure"
} | [
"D"
] | Amiodarone shall be carefully prescribed to patients suffering from: |
Answer: Serum potassium level. Eplerenone (Inspra) is a blocker of aldosterone binding at the mineralocorticoid receptor. It is available for oral administration contains 25 mg or 50 mg of Eplerenone (Inspra). It is indicated for the treatment of Congestive Heart Failure Post-Myocardial Infarction and Hypertension.
T... | 39 | None | c | {
"A": "blood glucose level ",
"B": "amino acid (alanine) level ",
"C": "serum potassium level ",
"D": "INR ratio ",
"E": "LDL level"
} | [
"C"
] | Which of the following shall be measured before initiating Inspra therapy? |
Answer: (d). Ezetimibe (Zetia), administered alone, is indicated as adjunctive therapy to diet for the reduction of elevated total cholesterol (total-C), low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), apolipoprotein B (Apo B), and nonhigh- density lipoprotein cholesterol (non-HDL-C) in patients with primary (heterozygous... | 38 | None | d | {
"A": "I only ",
"B": "I and II only ",
"C": "II and III only ",
"D": "All",
"E": null
} | [
"D"
] | Zetia is indicated for the treatment of:
I. Hyperlipidemia
II. Homozygous Familial Hypercholesterolemia
III. Sitosterolemia |
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