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135
Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillariesa) Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)b) Globulinc) Creatinined) HCO3 e) Glucose
{ "A": "cde", "B": "acd", "C": "bde", "D": "ade" }
cde
0A
Freely filterable substances by glomerulus -        Water -        Na+ -        Cl- -        HCO3- -        Inulin -        Glucose -        Creatinine   -        Free Calcium or phosphate
Physiology
None
Antibodies associated with GTCS in SLE :
{ "A": "Anti neuronal ab", "B": "Anti-Ro ab", "C": "Anti-Sm ab", "D": "None" }
Anti neuronal ab
0A
Ans.A Anti neuronal ab (Ref: Harrison's Internal medicine 18th/Table 319-1; 17th edition, P. 2076). Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Antibody Prevalence, % Antigen Recognized Clinical Utility Antinuclear antibodies 98 Multiple nuclear Best screening test; repeated negative tests make SLE unlikely An...
Unknown
None
Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by
{ "A": "Pharyngobasilar fascia", "B": "Palatopharyngeal fold", "C": "Buccopharyngeal fascia", "D": "Palatoglossal fold" }
Palatoglossal fold
3D
Tonsilar fossa is bounded by Anterior - Palatoglossal fold containing palatoglossal muscle Posterior - Palatopharyngeal fold containing palato pharyngeal muscle Apex - Soft palate, where both arches meet Base - Dorsal surface of posterior one-third of tongue. (Ref: Anatomy of head, neck and brain. Vishram Singh. P 227 ...
ENT
Pharynx
"Castration anxiety" is seen in which phase of Sigmond Freud's psychosexual stages of development
{ "A": "Oral", "B": "Anal", "C": "Phallic", "D": "Genital" }
Phallic
2C
Phallic phase (3-5years): Male child develops Oedipus complex (sexual feeling towards mother) and will be afraid that father may castrate him for this termed as "Castration anxiety".
Psychiatry
None
Shock causes:
{ "A": "Stagnant hypoxia", "B": "Anemic hypoxia", "C": "Hypoxic hypoxia", "D": "Histotoxic hypoxia" }
Stagnant hypoxia
0A
Ans: A (Stagnant hypoxia)Ref: Pat GK, Hypoxia and Oxygen Therapy, In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 2nd ed, Abuja Publishing House 2011: 94: 754-55Explanation:Refer the explanation of previous question
Physiology
Circulation: Circulatory Shock and Its Treatment
Two or more parallel vertical surfaces of abutment teeth shaped to direct the prosthesis during placement and removal, are known as:
{ "A": "Orientation plane", "B": "Parallel block out", "C": "Survey lines", "D": "Guiding planes" }
Guiding planes
3D
None
Dental
None
Calcium silicate based material is:
{ "A": "MTA", "B": "Geristore", "C": "Dieket", "D": "Retroplast" }
MTA
0A
Mineral trioxide aggregate was developed by Dr Torabinejad in 1993.  It contains tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate, bismuth oxide, calcium sulfate and tetracalcium aluminoferrite. pH of MTA is 12.5. Textbook of Endodontics Nisha Garg 3rd Ed
Dental
None
Which of the following statements about Total Infra–Venous Anaesthesia (TIVA) is true –
{ "A": "Causes More Renal Toxicity", "B": "Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate", "C": "Risk of Malignant Hyperthermia is high", "D": "Inhibits Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasconstriction" }
Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate
1B
Total intravenous anaesthesia refers to a technique in general anaesthesia using a compination of agents given solely by IV route and in the absence of all inhalation agents. TIVA (Total intravenous anaesthesia) is produced by IV propoful. Propofol decreases the cerebral metabolic rate. Propofol does not impair renal f...
Anaesthesia
None
In Profound MR, IQ is
{ "A": "50-69", "B": "35-49", "C": "20-34", "D": "< 20" }
< 20
3D
IQ range for categoriesICD-10DSM-IVMild50-6950-55 to 70Moderate35-4935-40 to 50-55Severe20-3420-25 to 35-40ProfoundBelow 20Below 20-25Reference: Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry; 3rd edition; Chapter 18; Learning Disability
Psychiatry
Child psychiatry
Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?
{ "A": "Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)", "B": "Diiodotyrosine (DIT)", "C": "T3", "D": "Reverse T3" }
Diiodotyrosine (DIT)
1B
THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine m...
Microbiology
All India exam
Silicosis caused by ?
{ "A": "Gold", "B": "Coal", "C": "CO", "D": "Silica" }
Silica
3D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Silica
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
Human development index includes -
{ "A": "Crude death rate", "B": "Life expectancy at one year", "C": "Life expectancy at bih", "D": "All" }
Life expectancy at bih
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Life expectancy at bih According to 22nd/e of Park, options 'd & e' are not the components of HDI. o Expected years of schooling (not adult literacy rate) and GNI per capita (not GDP) are the components of HDI.
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
One of the constituents of the commonly used metered dose inhalers in bronchial asthma which is an air pollutant & dangerous to earth's stratosphere is -
{ "A": "Flurocarbons", "B": "Salbutamol", "C": "Ozone", "D": "Oxygen" }
Flurocarbons
0A
None
Medicine
None
H. capsulatum, a dimorphic fungus, is found in soil heavily contaminated with bird droppings. Which of the following statements best describes the presence of the organism in tissue biopsies?
{ "A": "Yeasts with broad-based bud", "B": "Single-cell yeasts with pseudohyphae", "C": "Arthrospores", "D": "Oval budding yeasts inside macrophages" }
Oval budding yeasts inside macrophages
3D
Histoplasma capsulatum is a dimorphic fungus that forms two types of spores: tuberculate macroconidia and microconidia. Inhalation of the microconidia transmits infection. Inhaled spores (microconidia) are engulfed by macrophages and develop into yeast forms. Most infections remain asymptomatic; small granulomatous foc...
Microbiology
Mycology
Budding reproduction in tissue is seen in
{ "A": "Cryptococcus, candida", "B": "Candida, rhizopus", "C": "Rhizopus, mucor", "D": "Histoplasma, candida" }
Cryptococcus, candida
0A
Cryptococcus is a yeast, candida is a yeast-like fungus. Both are reproduced by budding Histoplasma is a dimorphic fungus Mucor and Rhizopus are produced by asexual means sporangiospores Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition
Microbiology
mycology
True about polio:
{ "A": "Paralytic polio is most common", "B": "Spastic paralysis seen", "C": "IM injections and increased muscular activity lead to increased paralysis", "D": "Polio drops in pulse polio immunisation given only in <3 years old children" }
IM injections and increased muscular activity lead to increased paralysis
2C
False 90-95% of polio infections are asymptomatic False Acute flaccid paralysis is seen in Polio & not spastic paralysis True Risk of paralytic polio is increased by tonsillectomy, strenous physical exercise, tooth extraction,Injection (intramuscular) False OPV drops are given to all children less than 5 yr age in puls...
Pediatrics
Impoant Viral Diseases in Children
The retention of dowel in a pin retained crown is increased by
{ "A": "Increased length, smooth surface and increased taper.", "B": "Increased length, serrated surface and increased taper.", "C": "Increased length, smooth surface and parallel sides.", "D": "Increased length, serrated surface and parallel sides." }
Increased length, serrated surface and parallel sides.
3D
Post should be at least 2/3 the root length, parallel sided and serrated for increased retention in the canal
Dental
None
Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?
{ "A": "Albuterol", "B": "Metaproterenol", "C": "Terbutaline", "D": "Pirbuterol" }
Terbutaline
2C
terbutaline can be given as s.c (0.25mg) in asthma.
Pharmacology
None
Mycosis fungoides which is not true:
{ "A": "It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma.", "B": "Pautriers microabscess.", "C": "Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment.", "D": "Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral." }
Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment.
2C
Mycosis Fungoides: Mycosis fungoides is synonymous with Cutaneous T cell lymphoma.
Medicine
None
Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008
{ "A": "Uveo-parotid fever", "B": "Mumps", "C": "Debilitation after major surgery", "D": "After administration of iodine" }
Debilitation after major surgery
2C
Ans. C: Debilitation after major surgery Acute bacterial parotitis is now infrequent, but its historical impoance. Mumps and bacterial parotitis were differentiated by 1800, but neither was effectively treated. The moality rate for bacterial parotitis was 80%. Before antibiotics and intravenous administration of fluids...
Surgery
None
Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;
{ "A": "Low grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia", "B": "High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia", "C": "Squamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16", "D": "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV" }
High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
1B
High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion have a propensity to progress and become invasive, therefore need investigations and treatment Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 410.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease features include:
{ "A": "Can be diagnosed intrauterine", "B": "Proceeds to renal failure till children reaches school going age", "C": "Can be palpated abdominally", "D": "Hypertension doesn't develop until late stages of the disease" }
Can be diagnosed intrauterine
0A
Ans. A. Can be diagnosed intrauterineExplanationClinical features of ARPKD (Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease) are:Classic ARPKD is generally diagnosed in utero or within the neonatal period and characterized by greatly enlarged echogenic kidneys in diseased fetuses. (Option a)Reduced fetal urine production...
Pathology
Kidney
You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of t...
{ "A": "Vaccine reaction", "B": "Injection reaction", "C": "Programme error", "D": "Coincidental" }
Injection reaction
1B
The following are the adverse effect following immunisation: Vaccine reaction - Here the event is caused by the inherent propeies of the vaccine when given correctly. Programme error - In this case the event is as a result of error in preparation, handling or administration of the vaccine. Coincidental - The event afte...
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-
{ "A": "Median cubital vein", "B": "Radial nerve", "C": "Brachial aery", "D": "Anterior interosseous aery" }
Brachial aery
2C
Bicipital aponeurosis lies superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. -lies deep to superficial veins. -provides protection for the deeper structures during venepuncture at cubital fossa. -routinely released to decompress the median nerve
Anatomy
Muscles of arm and forearm region & Cubital fossa
Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as -
{ "A": "Sublimation", "B": "Suppression", "C": "Humor", "D": "Anticipation" }
Suppression
1B
Suppression is pushing of unwanted feelings into unconscious which has reached conscious awareness.
Psychiatry
None
The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is -
{ "A": "Caecum", "B": "Hepatic flexure", "C": "Splenic flexure", "D": "Sigmoid colon" }
Sigmoid colon
3D
• Risks of colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage • MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy. • MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon • Perforation can be caused by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loop...
Surgery
None
A 74-year-old woman develops occipital headache, vomiting, and dizziness. She looks unwell, her blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 30/min. She is unable to sit or walk because of unsteadiness. Over the next few hours, she develops a decline in her level of consciousness.For the above...
{ "A": "basal ganglia hemorrhage", "B": "cerebellar hemorrhage", "C": "pontine hemorrhage", "D": "lobar intracerebral hemorrhage" }
cerebellar hemorrhage
1B
Cerebellar hemorrhage, when mild, may present with only headache, vomiting, and ataxia of gait. Patients may complain of dizziness or vertigo. The eyes may be deviated to the side opposite the hemorrhage. Nystagmus is not common, but an ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy can occur. This is the only type of intracerebral hem...
Medicine
C.N.S.
Which is an uricosuric drug-
{ "A": "Allopurinol", "B": "Probenecid", "C": "Indomethacin", "D": "Aspirin" }
Probenecid
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Probenecid Uricosuric drugs are probenacid, sulfinpyrazone and benzbromarone.
Pharmacology
None
After an incised wound ,new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium.The approximate age of the wound is
{ "A": "4-5days", "B": "About 1week", "C": "12-24hrs", "D": "24-48 hrs" }
4-5days
0A
Ref Robbins 9/e p106 Incised wound for the formation of collagen and new tissue, thick layer of epithelial ,and granulation tissue formation along with new blood vessels requires atleast 4_5 days
Anatomy
General anatomy
After delivery, a 28 year old pre ecclamptic primigra has a soft uterus with moderate-to-heavy bleeding. There is no laceration and there is PPH diagnosed due to uterine atony. Which of the following is the best management option?
{ "A": "0.2-mg intramuscular (IM) ergonovine (Methergine)", "B": "20 units of IV oxytocin", "C": "10 units of oral oxytocin", "D": "250 mg prostaglandin F2-alpha orally" }
20 units of IV oxytocin
1B
Ergot derivatives should not be given in patients with hypeension since this is classically known to increase blood pressure. A high BP may provoke a post paum ecclampsia Oxytocin is not orally effective . Prostaglandin F2-alpha is given IM.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pregnancy induced Hypeension
Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:
{ "A": "Perforator in competency", "B": "Deep veins patency", "C": "Saphenofemoral incompetency", "D": "Site of perforators" }
Saphenofemoral incompetency
2C
Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally ...
Surgery
Varicose Veins
Arrange the following 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis in sequence: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose - 6 - phosphatase C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase D. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
{ "A": "D-C-A-B", "B": "A-C-D-B", "C": "B-A-D-C", "D": "C-D-B-A" }
A-C-D-B
1B
None
Biochemistry
Gluconeogenesis
Specific poison for succinate dehydrogenase is ?
{ "A": "Cyanide", "B": "Malonate", "C": "Arsenite", "D": "Fluoride" }
Malonate
1B
B i.e. Malonate
Biochemistry
None
Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is -
{ "A": "Rabies", "B": "Leptospirosis", "C": "Brucella", "D": "Anthrax" }
Leptospirosis
1B
<p> Leptospirosis is the most wide zoonotic disease in the world. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:291. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Post operative muscle ache is caused by
{ "A": "d-TC", "B": "Suxamethonium", "C": "Gallamine", "D": "Pancuronium" }
Suxamethonium
1B
None
Anaesthesia
Muscle relaxants
Blood stained sputum may be the only symptom in?
{ "A": "Bronchiectasis", "B": "Carcinoma bronchus", "C": "Adenoma bronchus", "D": "Pulmonary T.B." }
Adenoma bronchus
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoma bronchus
Surgery
None
Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?
{ "A": "Malate dehydrogenase", "B": "Isocitrate dehydrogenase", "C": "N-acetyl glutamate synthetase", "D": "Succinate dehydrogenase" }
N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
2C
Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5...
Biochemistry
None
Punishment for infanticide comes under -
{ "A": "IPC102", "B": "IPC324", "C": "IPC302", "D": "IPC300" }
IPC302
2C
Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.377 Infanticide refers to the deliberate killings of chlid below the age of one year.In England, Germany, UK, there is a clear-cut distinction between homicide and infanticides. In India, no such distinction exists, and accuse is punish...
Forensic Medicine
Sexual offences and infanticide
Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is -
{ "A": "USG", "B": "CT", "C": "MRI", "D": "Doppler" }
Doppler
3D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doppler o Color doppler ultrasonography is the screening method of choice (not simple USG : option a is incorrect),o Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice for diagnosis,o MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.Investigations in nervous syste...
Radiology
Head and Neck Imaging
Proposed guideline value for Radioactivity in drinking water is:
{ "A": "Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L", "B": "Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L adn Gross b activity 0.1 Bq/L", "C": "Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L and Gross b activity 10.0 Bq/L", "D": "Gross a activity 10 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L" }
Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L
0A
Key guidelines aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality: Colour <15 true colour units (TCU) Turbidity <1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU) pH: 6.5-8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) <500 mg/Litre Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helmin...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Lens develops from?
{ "A": "Endoderm", "B": "Mesoderm", "C": "Surface ectoderm", "D": "Neuroectoderm" }
Surface ectoderm
2C
Ans. c (Surface ectoderm). (Ref. Human Embryology by IB Singh, 6th/352)LENS# LENS develops from surface ectoderm.# Compared to the cornea, it has a much lower converging power of 17 diopters because of the relatively similar refractive indices of aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous body (cornea 42 D).# However, the lens ...
Ophthalmology
Lens
Features of neurogenic shock are
{ "A": "↑Peripheral resistance ↓ cardiac output", "B": "↑ Venous return ↑ cardiac output", "C": "↓Peripheral resistence↓cardiac output", "D": "Venoconstriction ↓cardiac output" }
↓Peripheral resistence↓cardiac output
2C
None
Medicine
None
Palm of one hand is placed horizontally across the mouth and nostrils in
{ "A": "Manual strangulation", "B": "Palmar strangulation", "C": "Garrotting", "D": "Mugging" }
Palmar strangulation
1B
palmar strangulation Here the palm of one hand is placed horizontally across the mouth and nostrils, it's pressure being reinforced by placing the other palm on the top of it at right angles, the heel of the palm above pressing upon the front of the neck. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY KRISHNAN VIJ F...
Forensic Medicine
Asphyxia
In RDS all of the following statements are true except
{ "A": "Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation", "B": "Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers", "C": "Leads to cyanosis", "D": "Is treated by administering 100% oxygen" }
Is treated by administering 100% oxygen
3D
Administration of 100% oxygen may increase the O2 load on fetal lung tissue. Hence, it is not given . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
New born infants
National program for prevention and control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular disease and stroke (NPCDCS), true is -
{ "A": "Separate centre for stroke, DM, cancer", "B": "Implementation in some 5 states over 10 districts", "C": "District hospital has specialised facilities", "D": "Subcentre has facility for diagnosis and treatment" }
District hospital has specialised facilities
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., District hospital has specialised facilities Sational program for prevention and control of cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and stroke (NPCDCS1 Introduction Single centre fi- cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, stroke. 100 districts in 21 states being covered in 1 1 th live year plan. ...
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
All of the following are ACTH independent Cushing syndrome except :
{ "A": "Pituitary adenoma", "B": "Adrenal hyperplasia", "C": "Adrenocoical carcinoma", "D": "McCune Albright Syndrome" }
Pituitary adenoma
0A
ACTH dependent Cushing syndrome is caused by : ACTH producing pituitary adenoma Ectopic ACTH Bronchial or pancreatic carcinoid Small cell cancer of lung Medullary carcinoma of thyroids Pheochromocytoma ACTH Independent Cushing syndrome is caused by : Adrenocoical adenoma/ carcinoma Primary pigmented nodular adrenal dis...
Medicine
Cushing Syndrome
Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by: March 2004
{ "A": "Anemia", "B": "Splenomegaly", "C": "Jaundice", "D": "All of the above" }
All of the above
3D
Ans. D i.e. All of the above
Pathology
None
Ketamine can be given by all of following routes except-
{ "A": "IV", "B": "IM", "C": "SC", "D": "Nasally" }
SC
2C
Ketamine has been administered intravenously, orally , rectally, intramuscularly and epidural route and very rare intranasal but not subcutaneous
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
All of the following are features of Devic's syndrome (neuromyelitis optica), except?
{ "A": "Separate attacks of acute optic neuritis and myelitis", "B": "Optic neuritis is either unilateral or bilateral", "C": "Brain MRI is typically normal", "D": "It has a fulminant demyelinating process and progress to death in 1-2 year" }
It has a fulminant demyelinating process and progress to death in 1-2 year
3D
Devic's disease is a variant of multiple sclerosis. Fulminant demyelinating process is seen with another variant called Marburg's variant.
Medicine
None
Which of the following is true about calcification of teeth?
{ "A": "Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at time of birth", "B": "Calcification of all primary teeth and few permanent teeth complete at birth", "C": "Calcification of all permanent teeth complete at birt", "D": "Calcification of primary teeth starts around birth" }
Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at time of birth
0A
None
Dental
None
A 7 years old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hairs and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most helpful for diagnostic evaluation?
{ "A": "Bacterial culture", "B": "Biopsy", "C": "KOH mount", "D": "Patch test" }
KOH mount
2C
Ans. c. KOH mount
Skin
None
All the following are seen in Hyperparathyroidism except
{ "A": "Subperiosteal erosion of bone", "B": "Loss of lamina dura", "C": "Calvarial thickening", "D": "Pepper - pot skull" }
Calvarial thickening
2C
Calvarial thickening is a feature of Hypoparathyroidism.
Radiology
None
Spore forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli ?
{ "A": "Bacillus Anthracis", "B": "Clostridia", "C": "Corynebacterium", "D": "Peptostreptococcus" }
Clostridia
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridia There are two medically impoant spore forming bacteria. Both of them are 'gram positive' `bacilli' :-Aerobic : BacillusAnaerobic (obligate anaerobes) : Clostridia.
Microbiology
None
Drug of choice for Falciparum Malaria is:-
{ "A": "Chloroquine", "B": "Mefloquine", "C": "ACT", "D": "Proguanil" }
ACT
2C
DOC for Falciparum Malaria - ACT.( Aemisinin based Combination therapy ) In Noh Eastern states:- ACT-AL co-formulated tablet of Aemether-20 mg / Lumefantrine - 120 mg. Primaquine 0.75 mg/ kg Body weight on day 2. 2. In Other States:- ACT-SP -Aesunate 50 mg tablet for 3 days and Sulphadoxine (500mg) - Pyremethamine (25m...
Social & Preventive Medicine
VBDs, Arboviral & Viral Infections, Surface Infections
All are causes of white-dot syndrome except:
{ "A": "Fuch's heterochromic uveitis", "B": "VKH syndrome", "C": "HIV retinopathy", "D": "Sympathetic ophthalmitis" }
Sympathetic ophthalmitis
3D
Ans. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
Ophthalmology
None
Maximum flow of Type1 inlay wax at 45degree
{ "A": "2%", "B": "3%", "C": "10%", "D": "70%" }
70%
3D
None
Dental
None
Platypnea is seen with?
{ "A": "Hepato-pulmonary syndrome", "B": "Hepato-renal syndrome", "C": "Renal aery stenosis", "D": "Kyphoscoliosis" }
Hepato-pulmonary syndrome
0A
Platypnea: Increase dyspnea on sitting position Seen in 1. Atrial myxoma 2. Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Medicine
Acute Kidney Injury
Neuro lathyrism results due to
{ "A": "Aflatoxin", "B": "Pyruvic acid", "C": "BOAA", "D": "Sanguinarine" }
BOAA
2C
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
Factor V Leiden is caused due to a mutation that results in a substitution at position 506 glutamine to which of the following:
{ "A": "Alanine", "B": "Arginine", "C": "Glycine", "D": "Glutamine" }
Arginine
1B
Mutation in factor V (called the Leiden mutation, after the city in the Netherlands where it was discovered) causes recurrent DVTs. The mutation results in a glutamine to arginine substitution at position 506 that renders factor V resistant to cleavage by protein C. As a result, an impoant antithrombotic counter-regula...
Pathology
None
Kunkel's test is done to demonstrate presence of ................. in blood.
{ "A": "Lead", "B": "CuSO4", "C": "CO", "D": "Dhatura" }
CO
2C
Carbon monoxide (CO)
Forensic Medicine
None
In which case cystometric study is indicated -
{ "A": "Neurogenic bladder", "B": "Stress incontinence", "C": "Fistula", "D": "Urge incontinence" }
Neurogenic bladder
0A
Cystometric studies are urodynamic studies in which the pressure changes in the bladder is simultaneously measured with bladder filling and during micturition. It helps in accurate assessment of detrusor and sphincter activity especially if a neurogenic abnormality is suspected. Though it is also used in stress inconti...
Surgery
None
Fish tank granuloma is seen in -
{ "A": "Mfortuitum", "B": "Mkansasi", "C": "Mmarinum", "D": "M leprosy" }
Mmarinum
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Marinum o Fish tank granulomaalso called ' swimming pool granuiomaf is caused by M. marinum.Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agents.DiseasesUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofulaceumSkin lesionPost-trauma abscessSwimming po...
Microbiology
Bacteria
TYNDALLISATION is a type of
{ "A": "intermittent sterilization", "B": "pasteurisation", "C": "boiling", "D": "autoclaving" }
intermittent sterilization
0A
None
Microbiology
None
A 49-year-old female taking ibuprofen for increasing joint pain in her hands presents with increasing pain in her midsternal area. Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. ...
{ "A": "Active chronic gastritis", "B": "Acute gastritis", "C": "Autoimmune gastritis", "D": "Chronic gastritis" }
Acute gastritis
1B
Gastritis is a nonspecific term that describes any inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Acute gastritis refers to the clinical situation of gastric mucosal erosions (not mucosal ulcers). Acute gastritis is also known as hemorrhagic gastritis or acute erosive gastritis. Acute gastritis is associated with the use of nonst...
Pathology
miscellaneous
Sedimentation coefficient of Ig E is:
{ "A": "7S", "B": "8S", "C": "11S", "D": "20 S" }
8S
1B
Ans : b 8S Ref: Ananthanarayanan 8th editionSvedberg unit - a sedimentation constant of 1 x 1013sec. Sedimentation unit is studied by ultracentrifugation - for diversity of antibody moleculeIgG -7IgA -7IgM -19Ig D -7IgE -8
Microbiology
Immunology
DNA dependent RNA synthesis is inhibited by:
{ "A": "Rifampicin", "B": "Ethambutol", "C": "Colchicine", "D": "Chloromycetin" }
Rifampicin
0A
Rifampicin
Pharmacology
None
Iliac crest involvement is common in which condition: March 2007
{ "A": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "B": "Rheumatoid ahritis", "C": "Reiter's syndrome", "D": "Osteoahritis" }
Ankylosing spondylitis
0A
Ans. A: Ankylosing Spondylitis The basic pathologic lesion of ankylosing spondylitis occurs at the entheses, which are sites of attachment to bone of ligaments, tendons, and joint capsules. Enthesopathy results from inflammation, with subsequent calcification and ossification at and around the entheses. Inflammation wi...
Surgery
None
A 40-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of recur- rent oral ulcers, genital ulcers, intermittent arthritic pain of the knees, and abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals shallow ulcerations of the mucosa of the glans penis, as well as oral aphthous ulcers and conjunctivitis. Which of the following is the ...
{ "A": "Behyet disease", "B": "Genital herpes", "C": "Gonorrhea", "D": "Polyarteritis nodosa" }
Behyet disease
0A
Behget disease is a systemic vasculitis characterized by oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulceration, and ocular inflammation, with occasional involvement of the nervous, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems. The mucocutaneous lesions show a non-specific vasculitis of arterioles, capillaries, and venules. The caus...
Pathology
Blood Vessels
About biotransformation not true ?
{ "A": "Active metabolite generation", "B": "Polar to less polar", "C": "Less polar to more polar", "D": "Generate active drug from prodrug" }
Polar to less polar
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Polar to less polar
Pharmacology
None
In which phase of cell cycle, proof reading occurs?
{ "A": "G1", "B": "S", "C": "G2", "D": "M" }
S
1B
EVENTS PHASE of cell cycle Proofreading S phase Most repairs G1 phase Mismatch repair G2 phase
Biochemistry
Molecular Biology
The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycleare ?
{ "A": "12", "B": "24", "C": "15", "D": "30" }
24
1B
Ans. is 'b' > b' i.e., 24 One turn of the TCA cycle, staing with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the staing molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when staing compound is pyruvate. Since, two mole...
Biochemistry
None
Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, bih history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?
{ "A": "Pseudostrabismus", "B": "Accomodative squint", "C": "Exophoria", "D": "Esophoria" }
Pseudostrabismus
0A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pseudostrabismus Epicantnic fold causes Pseudoesotropia (Pseudostrabismus).
Ophthalmology
None
Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:
{ "A": "Piamater", "B": "Pial vassels", "C": "Duramater", "D": "Brain matter" }
Duramater
2C
C i.e.Duramater
Physiology
None
Not used for iron poison in: FMGE 09; NEET 13
{ "A": "Magnesium hydroxide", "B": "Desferrioxamine", "C": "Gastric lavage", "D": "Penicillamine" }
Penicillamine
3D
Ans. Penicillamine
Forensic Medicine
None
Posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include all of the following, except:
{ "A": "First pa of the duodenum", "B": "Common bile duct", "C": "Inferior vena cava", "D": "Aoa" }
First pa of the duodenum
0A
The posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include the common bile duct, inferior vena cava and the right and left renal veins terminating into it. The first pa of the duodenum is an anterior relation of the head of the pancreas.Ref: Clinical Anatomy, By Richard S. Snell, 6th edition, Page 230; Clinical Anatom...
Anatomy
None
Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development?
{ "A": "A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres", "B": "Production of highly differentiated blastomeres", "C": "An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres", "D": "A decrease in size of blastomeres" }
A decrease in size of blastomeres
3D
Cleavage is a series of mitotic divisions by which the large amount of zygote cytoplasm is successively paitioned among the newly formed blastomeres. Although the number of blastomeres increases during cleavage, the size of individual blastomeres decreases until they resemble adult cells in size.
Anatomy
Development period- week 1,2,3,4
A female child with virilization, hypertension with low plasma renin diagnosis is :
{ "A": "21α hydroxylase deficiency", "B": "11 β hydroxylase deficiency", "C": "3β hydroxylase deficiency", "D": "Conn’s syndrome" }
11 β hydroxylase deficiency
1B
9] Congenital adrenal hyperplasia represents a group of autosomal recessive inherited, metabolic errors, each characterized by decency or total lack of a particular enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of cortical steroids, Steroidogenesis is then channelled into other pathways leading to increased production of androge...
Medicine
None
'Patterned' abrasion is variety of:
{ "A": "Linear abrasion", "B": "Pressure abrasion", "C": "Sliding abrasion", "D": "Superficial bruise" }
Pressure abrasion
1B
Ans. is 'b' ie pressure abrasion (Ref: Parikh; 6/e, p4.3).An abrasion is a superficial injury involving only the superficial layers of the skin (epidermis only), caused by friction and / or pressure between the skin and some rough object or surface. It bleeds very slightly, heals rapidly in a few days and leaves no sca...
Forensic Medicine
Sexual Offenses
Pimozide belongs to class of:
{ "A": "Thiothixanthene", "B": "Phenothiazine", "C": "Butyrophenone", "D": "Diphenyl butyl piperidine" }
Diphenyl butyl piperidine
3D
Thioxanthenes are flupenthioxol. Butyrophenones are haloperidol, trifluperidol , penfluridol. Phenothiazines are Chlorpromazine, triflupromazine , thioridazine, flufenazine. Promazine belongs to the group of other of other hetero cyclics that is diphenyl butyl piperidine. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
Which of the following drugs is antipseudomonal penicillin?
{ "A": "Cephalexin", "B": "Dicloxacillin", "C": "Piperacillin", "D": "Cloxacillin" }
Piperacillin
2C
None
Pharmacology
None
Following poisoning retards putrefaction: NEET 13
{ "A": "Aluminium phosphide", "B": "Lead", "C": "Arsenic", "D": "Copper" }
Arsenic
2C
Ans. Arsenic
Forensic Medicine
None
True statements about parotid gland
{ "A": "Duct opens oppsite to upper 2nd molar tooth", "B": "Duct pierces Masseter", "C": "Develops from ectoderm", "D": "Secretomotor fibres come from facial nerve" }
Duct opens oppsite to upper 2nd molar tooth
0A
The duct runs forwards for a sho distance between the buccinator and the oral mucosa. Finally, the duct turns medically and opens into the vestibule of the mouth(gingivobuccal vestibule)opposite the crown of the upper second molar tooth. Notes: Parotid abscess may be caused by spread of infection from the opening of pa...
Anatomy
Head and neck
Which of the following statement is false about hydrocele?
{ "A": "Arises due to patent processus vaginalis", "B": "Wait for 5 years for spontaneous closure of congenital hydrocele", "C": "Lord's plication of sac for small hydrocele", "D": "Jaboulay's eversion of sac for medium hydrocele" }
Wait for 5 years for spontaneous closure of congenital hydrocele
1B
Treatment of Hydrocele Congenital Hydrocele: Usually spontaneous obliteration by 2 years age. If persists then Herniotomy. Treatment of Vaginal Hydrocele 1. Small hydrocele: Lord's procedure (Plication of sac)Q 2. Medium hydrocele: Jaboulay's procedure (Eversion of sac)Q 3. Large hydrocele: Excision of sacQ
Surgery
Testis and scrotum
The main difference between dental stone and dental plaster is:
{ "A": "Chemical composition", "B": "Self life", "C": "Shape and size of particles", "D": "Solubility in water" }
Shape and size of particles
2C
None
Dental
None
A normally developing 10 months old child should be able to do all of the following except –
{ "A": "Stand alone", "B": "Play peak to boo", "C": "Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger", "D": "Build a tower of 3–4 cubes" }
Build a tower of 3–4 cubes
3D
A child starts trying to build a tower of cubes (2 cubes) by the age of 1 year. About other options Child can stand with support by 9 months. Child can play peak-a-boo game by 10 months. Child can pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger (pincer grasp) by 9 months.
Pediatrics
None
Lines of Blaschko&;s are along
{ "A": "Lymphatics", "B": "Nervs", "C": "Developmental", "D": "Blood vessels" }
Developmental
2C
Blaschko&;s lines, are lines of normal cell development in the skin. These lines are invisible under normal conditions.
Anatomy
General anatomy
All the teeth in patient’s mouth are similarly affected as shown in the radiograph. What is the most likely anomaly?
{ "A": "Type 1 dentinal dysplasia", "B": "Type 2 dentinal dysplasia", "C": "Taurodontism", "D": "Amelogenesis imperfecta" }
Type 2 dentinal dysplasia
1B
Dentinal dysplasia Dentinal dysplasia is an inherited condition affecting both dentitions. It is divided into two types: Type I (radicular dentinal dysplasia) and Type II (coronal dentinal dysplasia). It occurs less frequently than dentinogenesis imperfecta. Clinical features Type I is the more frequent type. Teeth eru...
Radiology
None
Middle aged female with mass in sella turcica hormone increased is -
{ "A": "Prolactin", "B": "Thyroxine", "C": "Extrogen", "D": "ADH" }
Prolactin
0A
The sella turcica is a saddle shaped depression of the sphenoid bone. It forms the caudal border of the pituitary gland. Sella turcica is an anatomically complex area with a number of different potential pathologies especially neoplastic process. Pathologies of sella turcica can lead to important clinical presentations...
Medicine
None
Hyoid bone fracture most common occurs in ?
{ "A": "Manual strangulation", "B": "Hanging", "C": "Smothering", "D": "Traumatic asphyxia" }
Manual strangulation
0A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation As manual strangulation (throttling) is among the most violent form of asphyxia, hyoid fracture and other injury to neck structures is more common.
Forensic Medicine
None
"Acute Meningoencephalitis" is caused by:
{ "A": "E. histolytica", "B": "Nageleria", "C": "Giardia", "D": "E.coli" }
Nageleria
1B
Nageleria
Microbiology
None
The process of destroying all microbes including spores is called :
{ "A": "Disinfection", "B": "Antisepsis", "C": "Asepsis", "D": "Sterilization" }
Sterilization
3D
None
Microbiology
None
All are major symptoms of sinusitis except
{ "A": "Nasal blockage", "B": "Facial congestion", "C": "Nasal congestion", "D": "Halitosis" }
Halitosis
3D
According to Rhinosinusitis task force definition of sinusitis,Major criteria-Facial pain, pressure, congestion, nasal obstruction, nasal/postnasal discharge, hyposmia and feverMinor criteria- Headache, halitosis, and dental painRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 328
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
Most sensitive nerve fiber to hypoxia
{ "A": "A", "B": "B", "C": "C", "D": "All are equally sensitive" }
B
1B
Question repeated
Physiology
Nervous system
Nasal septum is formed except by
{ "A": "Perpendicular plate of ethmoid", "B": "Vomer", "C": "Nasal bone", "D": "Lateral cailage" }
Lateral cailage
3D
The bony pa is formed by: 1.Vomer 2.Perpendicular plate of ethmoid 3.Nasal spine of frontal bone 4.Rostrum of sphenoid 5.Nasal crest of nasal, palatine and maxillary bones. NOTES: The cailaginous pa is formed by; 1.Septal cailage 2.Septal process of inferior nasal cailages The cuticular pa is formed by; 1.Fibrofatty ti...
Anatomy
Head and neck
Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it: September 2010
{ "A": "Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors", "B": "Is more potent in blocking beta-2 receptors", "C": "Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors", "D": "Impairs exercise capacity" }
Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors
0A
Ans. A: Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors Metoprolol is cardioselective beta blocker, more potent in blocking beta-1 than beta-2 adrenergic receptors.
Pharmacology
None
All will predispose to atherosclerosis, except
{ "A": "Homocystinemia", "B": "Fibrinogen", "C": "Calcium", "D": "Lipoprotein A" }
Calcium
2C
Elevated plasma levels of  homocysteine are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis, thrombosis and hypertension. Lipoprotein A inhibits fibrinolysis, therefore predisposes to atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis (Greek  athere-mush)  is a complex disease characterized by thickening or hardening of arteries due t...
Biochemistry
None
Most serious complication seen in other eye after traumatic injury to one eye: March 2005, September 2008
{ "A": "Subconjunctival hemorrhage", "B": "Corneal edema", "C": "Sympathetic ophthalmia", "D": "Sudden loss of vision" }
Sympathetic ophthalmia
2C
Ans. C: Sympathetic ophthalmia Sympathetic ophthalmia (SO) is a condition in which serious inflammation attacks the sound eye after injury (including intraocular surgeries) to the other. It is the most dreaded complication of unilateral severe eye injury, as it can leave the patient completely blind. Symptoms may devel...
Ophthalmology
None
Least commonly seen in conduct disorder seen in girls:-
{ "A": "Run away from home", "B": "High risk sexual behavior", "C": "Physical aggression", "D": "Emotional bullying" }
Physical aggression
2C
Conduct disorder - Persistent pattern of antisocial behavior in which the individual repeatedly breaks social rules and carries out aggressive acts.in conduct disorder they do it deliberately usually characterized by aggression and violation of the rights of others boys with conduct disorder show physical & relationshi...
Psychiatry
JIPMER 2018
Which of the following aminoglycosides has the highest nephrotoxicity?
{ "A": "Paromomycin", "B": "Streptomycin", "C": "Amikacin", "D": "Neomycin" }
Neomycin
3D
None
Pharmacology
None
Least conduction velocity is seen in:
{ "A": "AV node", "B": "Purkinje fibers", "C": "Bundle of His", "D": "Ventricular myocardial fibres" }
AV node
0A
None
Physiology
None